My understanding of some statistics:
For a given experiment a finite number of samples can be taken, defining the sample size. However this experiment may have an infinity large population size.
Given that in an infinitely large population size any possible outcome will occur an infinite number of times, how can we truly say one outcome is more likely than another. Mathematically lets say from our sample we've found that there is a 0.1 chance of drawing a blue ball, and a 0.0000001 chance of drawing a red ball. If the balls are always replaced these odds do no change. However since the ball can be drawn any number of times this will happen:
blue ball count: 0.1 * x red ball count: 0.0000001 *x
where x is any number. Clearly the odds do not change with increasing x. But if x is infinitely large then:
blue ball count: 0.1 * infinity = infinity red ball count: 0.0000001 8 infinity = infinity
So how can we confidently state any odds when the population size is infinity?
P.S. This is just out of interest so I would appreciate as much detail, links etc. as possible