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That - at least as far as I follow, says $UV, U+V$ are dependent, but the first part of the proof shows that $XY, X+Y$ have 0 covariance (which I know doesn't necessarily imply independence).
I'm concerned that this method is based on taking a linear expansion - valid, provided that higher order terms can be neglected. But truthfully it only seems you can neglect this other term if $(g')^2 \gg g g''$ otherwise that term isn't really a "higher" order term. What I am trying to point out, I guess not really clearly is that this other term is ALSO a second order central moment term.
You haven't really addressed the question. The question is why is the second-order term neglected when it seems to not only be the same magnitude, but precisely cancel in the case of the Poisson distribution. Often series approximations are truncated on the basis that higher order terms can be neglected. This seems to not be the case here.