Definition of overdispersion
In the linked question, the variance is about $206 \times$ the mean of the response variable, but this number is irrelevant to the amount of overdispersion.
Overdispersion means that the model underestimates the variance in the outcome at any given value of the explanatory variable.
In other words, overdispersion does not mean $$\frac{\mathbb{E}\bigl[ (Y - \mathbb{E}\left[Y\right])^2\bigr]}{\mathbb{E}\left[ Y \right]} > 1,$$ but instead, it means $$\frac{\mathbb{E}\Bigl[ \bigl(Y - \mathbb{E}\left[Y \,|\, X\right]\bigr)^2 \;|\; X\Bigr]}{\mathbb{E}\left[ Y\,|\,X \right]} > 1.$$
This value is approximately equal to the residual deviance divided by the residual degrees of freedom, which in the linked question is $\frac{1041.9}{8} \approx 130.2$.
Printing a summary of the model shows that the estimated dispersion parameter is about $135.4$, fairly close.
What does a quasipoisson GLM do?
This is nicely summarized, and compared to other approaches in an answer by AdamO:
[Quasipoisson models] maximize a "quasilikelihood" which is a Poisson likelihood up to a proportional constant. That proportional constant happens to be the dispersion.
This dispersion parameter, which provides the correction to the standard errors for overdispersion, is accounted for by the model. So in theory, there should be no upper bound for the amount of overdispersion for the quasipoisson approach to be 'valid'...
As for the choice in the linked question...
The methods employed in the linked question involve estimating sandwich-based standard errors... so it actually doesn't matter whether quasipoisson, poisson, or even negative binomial is used:
The quasipoisson and Poisson models (always) give identical estimates, and we don't use their standard errors, because those are estimated separately. The negative binomial approach gives very slightly different estimates, but for all practical intents, they are equal.
(There are other approaches yet, like observation-level random effects, but the point remains.)