I understand that using a regression method that assumes independence of observations with an outcome that is either clustered or (positively) spatially autocorrelated can give misleading results. Let's focus on the common problem of downwardly biased standard errors used in significance testing of regression coefficients.
I can cite publications that say don't do use methods that assume independence with this data. I can use statistics to assess the potential for problems (e.g. Moran's I, the Intraclass Correlation Coefficient) and I can use not-too-complicated models to guard against possible problems (e.g., spatial error or lag model, a multilevel model).
What I can't do is tell a questioner exactly how these problems come into being--or where they enter into the equation, as it were.
I have read that, effectively, in both cases, the variance of the clustered or autocorrelated variable is underestimated with methods that assume independence.
It seems like the assumption of independence entails the assumption that certain possibly important things are equal to zero or one--e.g., ICC≠0, or a matrix of spatial weights where the weights are not all 1 (or a semivariogram that is not flat). [edit: in fact, it seems possible that the correlations between observations could be represented with a weights matrix that reflected distance in once case and class membership in another]
Am I conceptually correct about this seeming similarity--or are there differences in the way these two data types affect significance testing of regression coefficients?
Is there is general and relatively simple way to demonstrate both effects with math or example?
If you know of a publication that does this, that would be great, but it would have to be a pedagogical one. I am not a statistician. Thanks.