This question comes from page 142 of the book "Pattern Recognition and Machine Learning" by Christopher M. Bishop. Since it takes pages to arrive at the result, I excerpt the major settings as follows.
The goal is to derive the maximum likelihood solution for parameters $\bf w$ in a deterministic linear model with additive Gaussian noise $$t={\bf w}^T{\bf\phi}({\bf x})+\epsilon$$ where ${\bf w}=(w_0,\ldots,w_{M-1})^T$ and ${\bf\phi}$ is a vector of basis functions $(\phi_0,\ldots,\phi_{M-1})^T$ and hence should be in bold typeface.
Now consider a data set of inputs ${\bf X}=\{{\bf x}_1,\ldots,{\bf x}_N\}$ with corresponding target values ${\bf t}=(t_1,\ldots,t_N)^T$. Taking the (transpose of the) gradient of the log likelihood function and setting this gradient to zero gives
The book proceeds with solving for $\bf w$ to obtain $${\bf w}_{\mathrm{ML}}=({\bf\Phi}^T{\bf\Phi})^{-1}{\bf\Phi}^T{\bf t}.$$
Here $\bf\Phi$ is an $N\times M$ matrix, called the design matrix:
My questions is, matrix ${\bf\Phi}^T{\bf\Phi}$ is invertible only if $\bf\Phi$ has linearly independent columns. If we denote columns of $\bf\Phi$ by ${\bf\varphi}_j, j=1,\ldots,M$ (again should be bold-faced), why are ${\bf\varphi}_j$'s linearly independent? In general, if $M>N$, these columns are necessarily linear dependent in $\mathbb R^N$, so how could ${\bf\Phi}^T{\bf\Phi}$ be invertible to form the Moore-Penrose pseudo-inverse? Such a linear independence is also needed in subsequent geometrical interpretation in which $M<N$ and the subspace spanned by these column vectors is claimed to have dimensionality $M$. I checked the book but see nowhere make this claim. Neither can I figure out the independence from general definition of basis functions in the book. I'll appreciate it if you help me understand such a linear independence between ${\bf\varphi}_j$'s.