My question here is related to the following question I posted here: Joint posterior distribution of differences
With respect to that last question, what I want to discuss is how to appropriately sample from the posterior predictive distribution of the differences, i.e., the distribution $p(x^*-y^*, x^*-z^*,y^*-z^*|x,y,z)$. I assume to get this distribution I would need to calculate something like $$p(x^*-y^*, x^*-z^*,y^*-z^*|x,y,z)=\\ \int_\Delta\int_{\sigma^2_x}\int_{\sigma^2_y}\int_{\sigma^2_z}p(\Delta,\sigma^2_x,\sigma^2_y,\sigma^2_z| x, y, z)p(x^*-y^*, x^*-z^*,y^*-z^*|\Delta,\sigma^2_x,\sigma^2_y,\sigma^2_z x, y, z)d\Delta d\sigma^2_xd\sigma^2_yd\sigma^2_z$$
I know, as a general strategy in the case of a general posterior predictive distribution, say $$p(x^*|x) = \int_\Theta p(x^*|\theta,x)p(\theta|x)dx,$$ if you want to sample from $p(x^*|x)$, one strategy is to first sample a posterior draw $\theta$ and then to plug that $\theta$ into $p(x^*|\theta,x)$ and then sample an $x^*$ (i.e., a posterior predictive draw) from $p(x^*|\theta,x)$ which is just the same type of distribution as the likelihood.
Now returning to my question, I figured I could first sample $\sigma^2_x$, then sample $\sigma^2_y$, then sample $\sigma^2_z$, and then sample $\Delta$ (i.e., get posterior samples), and then to plug those posterior samples into $p(x^*-y^*, x^*-z^*,y^*-z^*|\Delta,\sigma^2_x,\sigma^2_y,\sigma^2_z| x, y, z)$ and to take a sample from that likelihood to get a posterior predictive draw. However, where I am stumped, is what the form of the likelihood $p(x^*-y^*, x^*-z^*,y^*-z^*|\Delta,\sigma^2_x,\sigma^2_y,\sigma^2_z x, y, z)$ actually is.
My alternative thought was to sample independently from $p(x^*|x)$, $p(y^*|y)$, and $p(z^*|z)$ (which I know how to do) and to then subtract those samples, i.e., $x^*-y^*$, $x^*-z^*$, and $y^*-z^*$, but my concern is aren't the those samples $x^*-y^*$, $x^*-z^*$, and $y^*-z^*$ independent of one another, while a sample of $p(x^*-y^*, x^*-z^*,y^*-z^*|\Delta,\sigma^2_x,\sigma^2_y,\sigma^2_z x, y, z)$ is not?
Or could I use the following strategy, first sample $\sigma^2_x$, then sample $\sigma^2_y$, then sample $\sigma^2_z$, and then sample $\mu_1$, $\mu_2$, and $\mu_3$ (i.e., get posterior samples), and then take a sample from $$\begin{pmatrix}x^*-y^*\\ x^*-z^*\\ y^*-z^*\end{pmatrix}\sim N_3\left(A\begin{pmatrix}\mu_1\\ \mu_2\\ \mu_3\end{pmatrix}, A\begin{pmatrix}\sigma^2_x & 0 &0\\ 0 & \sigma^2_y & 0\\ 0 & 0 & \sigma^2_z\end{pmatrix}A^T\right)$$
where $$\begin{pmatrix}\sigma^2_x & 0 &0\\ 0 & \sigma^2_y & 0\\ 0 & 0 & \sigma^2_z\end{pmatrix}$$ is the associated covariance matrix, and $$A = \begin{pmatrix}1& -1 &0\\ 1 & 0 & -1\\ 0 & 1 & -1\end{pmatrix}$$ is a matrix of contrasts.