I have a Poisson point process in a bounded region $W$. I'm trying to calculate the likelihood of observing a particular set of points within $W$. I'm told that there are two equivalent forms of likelihood:
$$L(\cdot) = \left( \prod_{i=1}^{n} \lambda(x_i) \right) e^{-\int_W \lambda(u) \, du},$$
which is, apparently, "the more general one" (and the one that I was familiar with as being the correct likelihood), and
$$L(\cdot) = \frac{\left( \int_W \lambda(u) du \right)^N e^{-\int_W \lambda(u) du}}{N!} \times \prod_{i=1}^{N} \lambda(u_i),$$
which I have never seen before, but, apparently, accounts for the occurrence of exactly $N$ points. The problem here is that, as I understand it, assuming we're taking the likelihood of some parameter given some set of points, the first form of likelihood already accounts for the probability of the occurrence of exactly $N$ points, no?
Are these two equivalent forms for the likelihood of a Poisson point process? Or is the first one the correct likelihood, and the second one something else (or even just nonsense)?