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I have the regression

$ \Delta \ln Y_i = \alpha + \beta \Delta X_i + \varepsilon_i $

where $\Delta \ln Y_i = \ln Y_{t,i} - \ln Y_{t-1,i}$ and $\Delta X_i = ((X_{t,i} - X_{t-1,i}) / T_{t-1,i} ) \cdot 100$. T is the total population and X is a subset, i are regions.

Suppose $\beta$ is -0.073. I interpret the semi-elasticity that a 1 percentage point increase in X relativ to baseline T decreases Y by 7.3%. (Is this correct?)

Question: How can I back out the elasticity? Maybe divide $\beta$ by the mean of $\Delta X_i$?

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  • $\begingroup$ Which elasticity? Of $Y$ with respect to $X$? Or? $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 15 at 20:43
  • $\begingroup$ yes, that one (dy/y) / (dx/x) $\endgroup$
    – Papayapap
    Commented Jul 16 at 7:23

1 Answer 1

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  1. Your interpretation of $\beta$ as a semi-elasticity is correct, though I would say "1 percent increase in X as a proportion of the lagged total" rather than "percentage point."

  2. It helps to write down the equation for what you have and what you want and then try to figure out how to transform one into the other. You know that here the semi-elasticity is $$\beta \approx \frac{\frac{Y_t-Y_{t-1}}{Y_{t-1}}}{100 \cdot \frac{X_t-X_{t-1}}{T_{t-1}}}$$ An elasticity is $$\epsilon \approx \frac{\frac{Y_t-Y_{t-1}}{Y_{t-1}}}{\frac{X_t-X_{t-1}}{X_{t-1}}} = \frac{\frac{Y_t-Y_{t-1}}{Y_{t-1}}}{100 \cdot \frac{X_t-X_{t-1}}{T_{t-1}} \cdot \frac{T_{t-1}}{X_{t-1}} \cdot \frac{1}{100}}=\beta \cdot 100 \cdot \frac{X_{t-1}}{T_{t-1}}.$$ This is a function that depends on the ratio $R_{t-1}$ of $X_{t-1}$ to $T_{t-1}$ for each $i$, so really $\epsilon_{i,t}$. You can plot it for $R_{t-1}$ from $0$ to $1$. There are other aggregations that could make sense here. For instance, you can also take the mean over your data to get an average elasticity, which simplifies to $$\epsilon = \beta \cdot 100 \cdot \bar R.$$ Since you are effectively conditioning on $R_{t-1}$ in your model, you have a random variable multiplied by a non-stochastic constant, which makes the variance of the elasticity easy to calculate: $$\mathbf{Var}(\epsilon) = (100 \cdot \bar R)^2 \cdot \mathbf{Var}(\beta)$$ Take the square root to get the standard error of $\epsilon$.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thank you! But isnt the elasticity $\epsilon = \frac{\frac{d \Delta Y}{\Delta Y}}{\frac{d \Delta X}{\Delta X}}$? $\endgroup$
    – Papayapap
    Commented Jul 16 at 7:26
  • $\begingroup$ I am not sure what this notation means. The standard definition with Q and P instead of Y and X is en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Elasticity_(economics), which matches what I have. $\endgroup$
    – dimitriy
    Commented Jul 16 at 15:15
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    $\begingroup$ To the OP: Please stay consistent. In answering my comment below your post, you gave a different elasticity that you want to calculate, the one of $Y$ w.r.t to $X$. For this elasticity, the answer of @dimitriy is fully correct. But here you specify another elasticity. There is no "one" elasticity. The concept of elasticity expresses relative proportional change between any two variables we care to specify. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 16 at 18:22
  • $\begingroup$ Okay, I guess you are right. It makes more sense to try to get at the standard (dy/y) / (dx/x) $\endgroup$
    – Papayapap
    Commented Jul 17 at 7:37
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    $\begingroup$ @Papayapap Indeed, because while one could compute this other elasticity, one should be able to also provide an intuitive understanding of what this elasticity measures and why it is useful. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 17 at 15:05

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