So, expected SARSA defines the update as: $$ Q(s,a) = Q(s,a) +\alpha (R+ \mathbb{E}_{a\sim\pi(s')}[Q(s', a)] - Q(s,a)) $$ Where SARSA defines the update as $a'\sim\pi(s')$: $$ Q(s,a) = Q(s,a) +\alpha (R+ Q(s', a') - Q(s,a)) $$
So how is SARSA not just a MC estimate of ExpSARSA? and since MC is unbiased, why not should SARSA also be an off-policy algorithm?
Edit: since seems like it's that clear what is the MC estimate I'm referring to, for some reason, my question is:
the two update differ only by an expected value, and $Q(s', a'\sim\pi(s')) \approx \mathbb{E}_{a\sim\pi(s')}[Q(s', a)]$, since it is a one sample monte carlo estimate, which is an unbiased estimate, so there is no reason why one should be on policy and the other off policy, since in expectation they lead to the same update