Sorry to ask such a blunt question, but I'm running out of time and I just can't figure this seemingly simple thing out. It's the p-value for $B_0$, a single variable regression. $H_0: B_0=0$ and $H_1: B0 \neq 0$. $T_{calc} = (0.5681 - 0)/0.9284 = 0.6119$. Then it says $p\text{-value}=2 \cdot (t\ge 0,6119) =2 \cdot 0.281525$. Where is this $0.281525$ coming from? I know it has something to do with the table. $n=8$.
Sorry again, I have a test coming up, for some reason I can't figure this out. I spent way too much time on this now, watching youtube videos for the past 1.5 hours trying to figure out where this .2815... came from.