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I have a sample of 15 subjects that did a test multiple times. Now I would like to see if the subjects differ in their mean performance. The usual approach would be a test for differences in means (e.g. t-test), but if I compare the subject with each other, I get a large type 1 error rate. Because of that, I thought about calculating a confidence interval for each subject and to see if they overlap.

What happens with the Type 1 Error here? Is there an alternative method to analyse the data?

Thanks for your patience and answers!

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  • $\begingroup$ Looking at confidence intervals can be misleading. Sometimes two whiskers can overlap and difference still significant. Second, confidence interval and t-test are different products of the same process; if multiple testing is involved, threshold p is lowered, then the t-distribution constant that goes into the CI calculation should also be higher, making the CI wider. Aka the CI will not remain unchanged. $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 25, 2015 at 12:16
  • $\begingroup$ you mean that I should first correct the comparison-wise type 1 error and then use the corresponding t-value for the construction of the confidence interval? $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 25, 2015 at 12:52
  • $\begingroup$ Yes and no, I meant to indicate that i) the confidence interval method also suffers from inflated type I error as well, and ii) because of that, you may as well go for t-test, but with additional adjustment to the p-value. Look for "Post-hoc mean comparison" and you may find some useful way to address the inflated type I error issue. $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 25, 2015 at 14:54
  • $\begingroup$ How many observations total? You have 15 subjects, how many total test observations? $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 25, 2015 at 15:24
  • $\begingroup$ each one did the test 5-6 times, not many, I know. Bad design? $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 25, 2015 at 15:29

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I would approach this as a repeated measures design, which can be done in a multilevel model framework which is robust to imbalance in the number of observations per subject.

Think about it this way:

$score_{it}=\beta_{i}+\mu_i+\epsilon_{it}$

or rewritten in a two-level framework:

$score_{it}=\beta_{i}+\epsilon_{it}$

$\beta_i=\gamma_i+\mu_i$

Where $\beta_i$ is the mean score for each subject across all their tests, $\mu_i$ is the random effect for the subject (i.e. the variability in score due to the subject), and $\epsilon_it$ is the random error for each individual test-subject unit (i.e. the within subject variability). This is flexible to put in additional level 1 or level 2 variables, like if you think subjects improve over time, you can add that in as well and it becomes a growth-curve model.

This doesn't suffer from multiple testing, and you can see how much variability is due to the subjects themselves, by the intra-class correlation coefficient (ICC): $\sigma_{\mu}/(\sigma_{\mu}+\sigma_{\epsilon})$

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  • $\begingroup$ Would the first $\beta_i$ actually be $\gamma_i$? $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 26, 2015 at 2:10
  • $\begingroup$ Correct; if collapse the two-level interpretation into the one-level, the beta and gamma are equivalent. $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 26, 2015 at 4:31

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