In short, in a fixed effects model, the individual effect is correlated with the regressors, while in the random effects model it is uncorrelated.
But what does "fixedness" have to do with the fact that the regressors are uncorrelated with the individual effects? similarly, "randomness" and "uncorrelated" are not the same concept. So why then are these models called "fixed effects" and "random effects", if they are instead about correlatedness vs uncorrelatedness? Is there some history behind this?