Say, i do a regression with one independent variable only even though there are more relevant variables that influence the dependent variable [omitted variable bias (ovb)].
It makes sense to me that a correlation might be detected which actually doesnt "exist" since it is caused by a third hidden variable.
Question:
Is it also possible that low/no correlation is indicated by the "OVB-regression" for the single independent variable, but there is actually a correlation which was not detected? --> So the "ovb" would decrease the (absolute) correlation.