A statistical model is a tuple containing a sample space $S$ and a set of distributions $P$ on that sample space. I'm getting this definition from wikipedia, McCullagh's "What is a Statistical Model", and Wasserman's "All of Statistics".
Suppose we have a dataset of height and age for a bunch of trees, and we want to create a statistical model to predict height from age.
Is the sample space:
- $\mathbb{R}$ (the set of possible heights of a tree)
- $\mathbb{R}^n$ (the product of the sets of possible heights for each of $n$ trees in our data)
- $\mathbb{R^2}$ (the set of possible heights and ages of a tree)
After thinking about it for a while, none of these seem to quite work.
(1) sounds reasonable at first, but it can't possibly be right, because there isn't any mechanism to condition the distribution on age, so basically the best we could do is fit a single distribution to all the heights. Also, this seems to prevent you from defining any model which doesn't assume i.i.d. data.
(2) solves these problems, as you could define a full joint distribution on all the heights. However it sounds extremely strange because your model is basically "fixed" by the size of the data. If you wanted to add a new data point, or predict height from age of a new tree, you would need to create a whole new model with sample space $\mathbb{R}^{n+1}$ and then "copy" the parameters over, which seems pretty bizzare to me.
Another reason this smells off is that in Larry Wasserman's notes on statistical models and sufficient statistics, he writes that any function of $x_1, ..., x_m ∼ p(x; θ)$ (where $p$ is one element of $P$) is a statistic, such as the median. This strongly implies (1) over (2), because it wouldn't really make sense to sample heights for each of $n$ trees, $m$ different times, and then take the median (what does that even mean?).
(3) this allows us to model the joint distribution of age and height, and then condition on age afterwards, so it seems to solve the problem without getting into the weirdness of (2). However, it's still very strange that we're being forced to model a joint distribution, even if we want a purely discriminative model. I suppose one could simply specify p(height, age) = p(height|age)p(age), then choose literally any distribution for age and ignore it -- but this is hardly sensible.
This is a very basic question, but I've been stuck for a while, so I feel like I must have misunderstood something somewhere..