When making inference about mean, i.e. when constructing a confidence interval for approximating population mean, in exercises there always provides a population SD, a.k.a. sigma, for us to solve the problem. But I highly doubt why can this be the case. As long as we know the sigma, that implies we already know the mean (according the the formula of how sigma is calculated), then what's the purpose of estimating an interval for the population mean if we already know its value?
Or I'm doubting if I have some misunderstanding about the origin of sigma in the first place: does it suggests it's possible to get sigma without knowing population mean? If so, how?
p.s. I know we can use sample SD to approximate sigma if sample size is large, but I'm not talking about this case.