This is a basic question, but when I was asked about it I only could give a weak answer. That's why I am asking it here.
If we want to calculate the confidence level for the mean there is the formula:
$(\bar{x}-t_{n-1}s_{\bar{x}},\bar{x}+t_{n-1}s_{\bar{x}})$
I know that the t distribution comes in, when the variance is unkown and has to be estimated. So the assumption that sample means are normally distributed is violated. The sample means follow the t distribution. But why? For me there is a point missing or at least it is not intuitive to me.