I'm still not quite sure how part (a) is different from part (b) but, from your comment above it appears you are now only asking about part (b), so:
If $\psi[\hat{\theta};(X,Y)] = 0$, then
$$
\sum_{i =1}^n(Y_i - \hat{\theta} X_i) \> = 0
$$
So,
$$ \sum_{i=1}^{n} Y_i = \hat{\theta} \cdot \sum_{i=1}^{n} X_i $$
Therefore $\hat{\theta} = \overline{Y}/\overline{X}$, the ratio of the sample means, satisfies $\psi[\hat{\theta};(X,Y)] = 0$. Regarding unbiasedness, it is easy to see that
$$ E( \hat{\theta} ) = E\left( \frac{ \sum_{i=1}^{n} \theta X_i + \varepsilon_{i} }{ \sum_{i=1}^{n} X_i }\right) = \theta + E \left( \frac{ \sum_{i=1}^{n} \varepsilon_i }{
\sum_{i=1}^{n} X_i }\right), $$
Edit: Based on the discussion in the comments, I've edited my answer. Let $B=\sum_{i=1}^{n} X_{i}$ and $Z = \sum_{i=1}^{n} \varepsilon_i$. Then, $B \sim {\rm Binomial}(n,\theta)$ and $Z \sim N(0, n \sigma^{2})$.
Since the errors are independent of the $X_{i}$,
$$
E \left( \frac{ \sum_{i=1}^{n} \varepsilon_i }{
\sum_{i=1}^{n} X_i }\right)
= E(Z) \cdot E \left( \frac{1}{B} \right) $$
Clearly $E(Z) = 0$. Assuming $\theta < 1$, $P(B = 0) = (1-\theta)^{n} > 0$. Therefore $E \left( \frac{1}{B} \right) = \infty$, so
$E \left( \frac{ \sum_{i=1}^{n} \varepsilon_i }{
\sum_{i=1}^{n} X_i }\right)$ doesn't exist. Therefore $E(\hat{\theta})$ doesn't exist whenever $\theta < 1$, so $\hat{\theta}$ can't be unbiased (although it is consistent as long as $\theta > 0$).
homework
tag. For such questions, we will provide hints, but not full solutions, in general. It is helpful if you also edit the question to include the work you've done and what specifically you are finding challenging. $\endgroup$