I have:
$X \sim \mathcal{N}(\mu_x, \sigma_x^2)$ and $Y \sim \mathcal{N}(\mu_y, \sigma_y^2)$. $X$ and $Y$ are independent.
$\mu_x$ and $\mu_y$ are not known and I want to learn about them (Bayesian inference).
However, I don't observe draws from $X$ and $Y$ independently, I only observes draws of $Z = X + Y$, with $Z \sim \mathcal{N}(\mu_x + \mu_y, \sigma_x^2 + \sigma_y^2)$.
Given some prior about $\mu_x$ and $\mu_y$ (e.g. $\mu_x \sim N(m^x_0, s^x_0)$ and $\mu_y \sim N(m^y_0, s^y_0)$), can I get a posterior that would have a closed form (and which would also be normal - i.e. keep the conjugacy property) ?
I tried to do the computations, basically I'm stuck.
If you know $\mu_x$ or $\mu_y$ it's quite straightforward because then you just change $Z$ into $Z - \mu_x$ for example.
But with both unknown I cannot get a normal closed form for the posterior (of $\mu_x$ or $\mu_y$) because the posterior depends on the other mean (which is also unknown).
e.g. for $\mu_x$ for example, the posterior is $\mu_x \sim N(m^x_1, s^x_1)$ where:
$s^x_1 = (1/\sigma^2_x + 1/s_x^2)^{-1}$
$m^x_1 = s^x_1 \Big( m^x_0/s_x^2 + (z - \mu_y)/\sigma^2_x \Big)$
But obviously, $\mu_y$ is not known either, hence the problem. The posterior must be weighted by your belief about $\mu_y$ somehow. And I'm not sure how it works. (Because similarly, your belief about $\mu_y$ is updated exactly in the same way).
As suggested in the comments, there might be some identification problem here. But I'm not sure because the prior's precision limits the scope of your posterior about both distributions.
My questions are:
- Am I missing a simplification in the computations? i.e. maybe there is an additional simplification at the end.
- If no, is there another distribution that I could use (e.g. lognormal instead of normal? I thought maybe with the log properties I could factorize something) for which I would keep the conjugacy property?
- Does anyone have any source on this specific kind of learning setup?
EDIT: more details.