If I understand correctly (which I might not), if I know a normal distribution's population variance but not its population mean, and take just one sample consisting of three measurements, then no matter what my sample variance is I should calculate 95% Confidence Intervals from the population variance, in the form $1.96*\sqrt{\frac{[PopulationVariance]}{3}}$, and that these can be used as error bars about the sample mean.
My question: does the sample variance tell me nothing about the confidence interval? If considering all sets of three measurements that I could take for a normal distribution, is there no overall correlation between low sample variance and nearness to the mean?
(Based on the thinking that more possible measurements are near the middle, so measurements similarly spaced but further from the mean would be less likely.)
If the sample variance does tell me something about what the confidence interval should be, how do I incorporate this without estimating a different population variance estimate from scratch from the sample variance?
Further thoughts following Xi'an's response: In a spreadsheet (from values -50 to 50), taking a normal distribution X of standard deviation 10 and mean 0 (representing the unknown population mean $\mu$), I can then multiply offset probabilities of X with itself; for a distance of 5 between two measurements, I can for instance get the probability that the lower measurement is at $\mu$ and that the higher measurement is at $\mu+5$ through $p(Z=0) = p(X=0) * p(X=5)$. I then compared the probability distributions for distances of 5 and 1, with mid-points shifted to 0 and using different y-axes, and saw that the distributions indeed appear to be exactly overlaid (without different variance)! I now no longer suspect that measurement-clustering gives information about population-mean closeness, but at time of writing do not yet intuitively understand why.
Yet another thought/note: (If I understand correctly, the integral of the product of two probability density functions (each with integral 100% probability) is not itself 100%, requiring scaling, so a lower central probability does not imply higher tail probabilities.)