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Let $Y \in \{0,1\}; P(Y=1)=\beta$. We have no observations of $Y$.

Instead, we observe a sample of $A$,$B$. We can assume that $P(A,B|Y)=P(A|Y)P(B|Y)$; $P(A=Y)=P(B=Y)=\alpha$; and that $P(A=Y|Y)=P(A=Y)$, P(B=Y|Y)=P(B=Y). In other words, $A$ and $B$ are binary variables, are conditionally independent given $Y$, and have the same error rate and their errors are independent of $Y$.

$\alpha$ is unknown, but I have convinced myself it is easy to estimate since it is determined by $P(A \ne B)$.

How can we estimate $\beta$?

Based on a comment on page 352 of the book "Measurement Error in Nonlinear Models" by Carroll et. al 2006, I believe that it is possible to consistently estimate $\beta$. But I'm having trouble working it out. I also recall doing a homework problem like this in the past, but I don't recall where.

I have worked out that $P(A\ne B) = 2\alpha (1-\alpha)$.

Carroll et al. also suggest that with a sample of $A$,$B$,$C$ and $P(A,B,C|Y)=P(A|Y)P(B|Y)P(C|Y)$ we can estimate $\beta$ even if $P(A=Y) \ne P(B=Y) \ne P(C=Y)$.

EDIT: Prior versions of the question did not assume that error rates were independent of $Y$. This assumption seems important to make the problem solvable, at least in the case of two replicates.

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  • $\begingroup$ You have not asked a question. And $P(Y)=\beta$ looks strange, as does $P(A,B\mid Y)=P(A\mid Y)P(B\mid Y)$. Did you mean $P(Y=1)=\beta$ and you want to estimate $\beta$? Do you know $\alpha$? $\endgroup$
    – Henry
    Commented Oct 18, 2022 at 19:59
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks for the feedback. I updated the question to clarify these points. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 18, 2022 at 20:07
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    $\begingroup$ I wonder if such a model would be easier to deal (including expanding beyond 2 observable variables) if you defined the model in terms of $\text{Pr}(Y=1)=\beta$ and the conditional probabilities $\text{Pr}(A=1|Y=0)$ and $\text{Pr}(A=1|Y=1)$. See MacKenzie, D. I., J. D. Nichols, G. B. Lachman, S. Droege, J. A. Royle, and C. A. Langtimm. 2002. Estimating site occupancy rates when detection probabilities are less than one. Ecology 83:2248–2255. $\endgroup$
    – JimB
    Commented Oct 20, 2022 at 15:26
  • $\begingroup$ Yeah this might help make it more clear. Thanks for the suggestion. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 20, 2022 at 15:56
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    $\begingroup$ Just note that in that literature, $\text{Pr}(A=1|Y=0)$ is called the "false positive probability" and is assumed to be zero. If the false positive probability is known, then multiple samples with the same $Y$ outcome allows one to estimate both the "false negative probability" and $\beta$ (called the occupancy probability in those models). But if the false positive probability is not zero or not known, then a more complicated sampling scheme is needed. And these approaches allow one to model all of those probabilities with covariates. $\endgroup$
    – JimB
    Commented Oct 20, 2022 at 16:49

2 Answers 2

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I think the answer you provided has a mistake. You substitute $P(A=1|Y=1)$ as $\alpha$. This is wrong according to your definition of $\alpha$ above. $ \alpha = P(A=Y) = P(A=1, Y=1) + P(A=0, Y=0)$, no?

I haven't found the solution, but I have developed some intuition that may be helpful.

Note that the joint probability distribution of two binary variables $A$ and $Y$ where $P(A=1) = \alpha$ and $P(Y=1) = \beta$ can be written as:

A=0 A=1
Y=0 $\bar\alpha\bar\beta + k$ $\alpha\bar\beta - k$
Y=1 $\bar\alpha\bar\beta - k$ $\alpha\beta + k$

Where $\bar\alpha = 1 - \alpha$, $\bar\beta = 1- \beta$, and $k$ controls the covariance between $A$ and $Y$:

$cov(A,Y) = E[AY] - E[A]E[Y] $

$cov(A,Y) = \overbrace{\alpha\beta + k}^{P(A=1, Y=1)} - \alpha\beta = k$

We can now calculate the covariance between $A$ and $B$ in the setup you proposed (where $P(B=1) = \alpha$) and find that:

$cov(A,B) = E[AB] - E[A]E[B] $

$cov(A,B) = E[AB] - \alpha^2 $

$cov(A,B) = P(A=1, B=1 | Y = 0) + P(A=1, B=1 | Y = 1) - \alpha^2 $

$cov(A,B) = P(A=1| Y = 0) P(B=1| Y = 0) +P(A=1| Y = 1) P(B=1| Y = 1) - \alpha^2 $

$cov(A,B) = P(A=1| Y = 0)^2 +P(A=1| Y = 1)^2 - \alpha^2 $

If we substitute this using the table above, we can find that:

$cov(A,B) = k^2 Var[Y]^{-1} = \frac{cov(A,Y)^2}{Var[Y]}$

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  • $\begingroup$ So I'm now quite convinced that $P(A=1|Y=1) = \alpha$ and revised the answer I submitted previously to show why. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 4, 2022 at 4:11
  • $\begingroup$ You were right about the covariance structure. I was confused because I thought P(A=Y)=\alpha would imply P(A=1|Y=1) = alpha. we needed a stronger assumption than P(A=Y) = alpha because the false-positive and false-negative rates can be differnet. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 5, 2022 at 7:01
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I found a solution for the case where we have 2 repeated noisy observations. It is not hard to spot once you write out the joint probability, use it to write out the conditional probability table in terms of $\beta$ and $\alpha$. We can show that $P(A\ne B) = 2 \alpha(1-\alpha)$, then use the quadratic formula to solve for $\alpha$, and then solve for $\beta$ in terms of $\alpha$.

Joint probability table:

$Y=0$ $Y=1$ $P(A)$
$A=0$ $\alpha(1-\beta)$ $(1-\alpha)\beta$ $\alpha(1-\beta) + (1-\alpha)(\beta)$
$A=1$ $(1-\alpha)(1-\beta)$ $\alpha\beta$ $(1-\alpha)(1-\beta)+\alpha\beta$
$P(Y)$ $\alpha(1-\beta) + (1-\alpha)(1-\beta)$ $(1-\alpha)\beta +\alpha\beta$ 1

If you doubt that $P(A=1,Y=1)=\alpha\beta$, consider $P(A=1,Y=1)=P(A=Y,A=1,Y=1)=P(A=Y,Y=1)=P(A=Y)P(Y=1)$

The last equality seems surprising since it says that $A=Y$ and $Y=1$ are independent. But they are since $P(A=Y)=\alpha$ no matter the value of $Y$.

Conditional probability table:

$Y=0$ $Y=1$
$P(A=0|Y)$ $\frac{(1-\alpha)(1-\beta)}{\alpha(1-\beta)+(1-\alpha)(1-\beta)}$ $\frac{(1-\alpha)\beta}{(1-\alpha)\beta+\alpha\beta}$
$P(A=1|Y)$ $\frac{(1-\alpha)(1-\beta)}{\alpha(1-\beta)+(1-\alpha)(1-\beta)}$ $\frac{\alpha\beta}{(1-\alpha)\beta + \alpha\beta}$

Lemma 1: $P(A=1|Y=1)=\alpha$; $P(A=0|Y=1)=(1-\alpha)$ Simplifying $P(A=1|Y=1)$ from the conditional probability table, we have: $$\frac{\alpha\beta}{(1-\alpha)\beta + \alpha \beta} = \frac{\alpha\beta}{\beta}=\alpha$$.

Simplifying $P(A=0|Y=1)$ we have: $$\frac{(1-\alpha)\beta}{(1-\alpha)\beta+\alpha\beta}=\frac{1-\alpha}{\alpha+1-\alpha}=1-\alpha$$

Lemma 2: $P(A \ne B) = 2 \alpha(1-\alpha)$ Consider the case $P(A\ne B,Y=1)$. The other is similar. $$P(A \ne B,Y=1) \\ = P(A\ne B|Y=1)P(Y=1) \\= P(Y=1)(P(A=1,B=0)|Y=1) + P(A=0,B=1|Y=1)) \\= P(Y=1)(P(A=1|Y=1)P(B=0|Y=1)+P(A=0|Y=1)P(B=1|Y=1)) \\ = \beta(\alpha(1-\alpha) + (1-\alpha)\alpha) = 2 \beta \alpha (1-\alpha)$$

since $A$ and $B$ are conditionally independent given Y.

Clearly, $P(A\ne B,Y=0) = 2 (1-\beta) \alpha (1 - \alpha)$. So we can write $$P(A \ne B) = 2 \alpha (1-\alpha)\beta + 2 \alpha (1-\alpha)(1-\beta) = 2\alpha(1-\alpha)(\beta + 1 - \beta) = 2\alpha(1-\alpha)$$

Use the quadratic formula to solve for $\alpha$. $$2\alpha^2 - 2\alpha + P(A\ne B) = 0 $$

$$ \alpha = \frac{2 \pm \sqrt{4 - 8P(A \ne B)}}{4} $$

Finally use $\alpha$ to solve for $\beta$

Observe that $P(Y=1|A\ne B) = P(Y=1)$.

$$ P(Y=1|A\ne B) = \frac{P(A\ne B | Y=1)P(Y=1)}{P(A \ne B)}$$ $$P(A \ne B | Y=1) = P(A=1,B=0 | Y=1) + P(A=0,B=1|Y=1)$$ $$ = 2 P(A=1,B=0 | Y=1) = 2P(A=1|Y=1)P(B=0|Y=1) = 2P(A=1|Y=1)P(A=0|Y=1) = 2P(A=1|Y=1)(1-P(A=1|Y=1) = $$

$$ \frac{P(A=1,B=1) - \alpha ^2 + 2\alpha -1}{2\alpha - 1} = \beta $$

This is because $$P(A=1,B=1) = P(A=1,B=1,Y=1) + P(A = 1, B = 1, Y = 0)$$ Consider $P(A=1,B=1,Y=1)$.

$$P(A=1,B=1,Y=1)=P(A=1, B=1|Y=1)P(Y=1) = P(A=1|Y=1)P(B=1|Y=1)P(Y=1)=\alpha^2\beta$$

And similarly, $P(A=1,B=1,Y=0) = (1-\alpha)^2(1-\beta)$. Therefore $$P(A=1,B=1) = \alpha^2\beta + (1-\alpha)^2(1-\beta) = \beta(\alpha ^ 2 -(1-\alpha)^2) + (1-\alpha)^2$$

And therefore $$\beta = \frac{P(A=1,B=1) - (1-\alpha)^2}{\alpha^2 - (1-\alpha)^2}$$

So it's clear that if we can estimate $P(A=1,B=1)$ and $P(A\ne B)$ we have an estimator of $P(Y)$.

The use of the quadratic formula deserves some attention. If $P (A \ne B) > 0.5$ then $\alpha$ is not real. This suggests that $P(A \ne B) <= 0.5$ by construction. Indeed, $P(A\ne B) > 0.5$ violates the conditional independence of $A$ and $B$ given $Y$ by requiring $A$ and $B$ to be anti-correlated. It is also possible that there are 2 real solutions for $\alpha$. One will have $\alpha > 0.5$ the other will have $\alpha < 0.5$, but only one of these will give a valid solution for $\beta$.

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