I am interested in calculating the variance of the sample variance for a finite population...of course in the limit of sampling the entire population, this will be zero. There seems to be one author who is doing this, and he has many similar versions of the expressions within. It seems easy enough to implement, however when I looked at the limit, it disagrees with my derivation (which agrees with mathworld). For a normal distribution, in the limit as the population goes to infinity, I get the following expressions
http://www.ijpam.eu/contents/2005-21-3/10/10.pdf
$\frac{2S^2(2n - 3)}{n(n - 1)}$...substituting in $\mu_2$ and $\mu_4$ for those of a standard normal with $\mu_1$=0
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/SampleVarianceDistribution.html
$\frac{2S^2}{n - 1}$...converting from population variance to sampling variance
where $S$ is the sampling variance
Am I making a mistake in interpreting the authors expressions. Ultimately, I am after confidence intervals for the variance when sampling a finite population