I have some trouble understanding the definition of the EM-algorithm. On Wikipedia they write the following mathematical expression:
$$ E_{Z|X,\Theta^{(t)}}[\log L(\Theta^{(t)}; X, Z)|X=x] $$
Now, let us rename $\Theta^{(t)}$ to just $\Theta$ and let us also recall that (yet) we do not want to undergo the complete Bayesian approach, i.e. $\Theta$ is not a random variable but just a (fixed but arbitrary) constant. $L(\Theta; X, Z)$ is simply $f_{X, Z}(x,z)$, i.e. the common density of the random variables $X$ and $Z$. We will abbreviate this as $p(x,z)$. Hence, what they want to compute is
$$E[\log p(X,Z)|X=x] $$
So I know that this should be equal to $E[\log p(x,Z)|X=x] = \int_{\mathcal{Z}} \log p(x,z) p(x|z) dz$ and so on but I am stuck at the very beginning: In order to write down a conditional expectation for, in fact, any random variable $Y$ conditioned on $X$ one needs to know that the random variable $Y$ is integrable (i.e. $L^1(\Omega)$). Hence, we need to know that the variable $$ \omega \mapsto \log p(X(\omega), Z(\omega))$$ is integrable.
Question: Why is this true?
What I have achieved so far: When I restrict myself to try to do Mixture models with the EM algorithm then this boils down to showing that for any $\Theta$, $$\int_{\mathbb{R}} \log (f(x;\Theta)) \cdot f(x;\Theta) dx < \infty$$ where $f$ is the density one puts into the mixture model. For example, this works when one takes $f$ to be the density of a normal distribution but the question is: Does this work for a general density function??
Regards & Thanks in advance,
FW