I understand the difference between sample mean/covariance and population mean/covariance and how to calculate them. However, I'm a bit unsure about what happens afterwards. If I only have the sample mean and sample covariance, do I use them the same way as the population mean/covariance for all other calcualations or do I have to take the fact that I have the sample and not the population in consideration?
For example, lets say I have $ X_1, X_2, X_3 $ which are independent and normally distributed. They have $ \underline{\bar{x}} = ( 1, 2, 3) $ and an unbiased sample covariance matrix $ S$ (with dimension 3x3). Now, if I want to calculate the distribution of $$ Y = X_1 -2X_2 + 3X_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & -2 & 3\end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} X_1\\ X_2 \\X_3 \end{pmatrix} = AX$$ can I use the regular formula $$\mu_y = A\underline{\mu} \\ \Sigma_y = A\Sigma A^T$$ and just switch $\underline{\mu} $ to $\underline{\bar{x}} $ and $\Sigma$ to $ S $ ?
My guess is that it works, but that I get the sample mean and sample covariance for $Y$, not the population mean/covariance. $$\bar{y} = A\underline{\bar{x}}\\S_y= ASA^T$$
If anyone can clear this out for me that would be very helpful.