I am wondering if both the coefficients can be identified in a causal sense given the context and the resulting multiple regression equation.
Imagine a scenario where we have two investment alternatives denoted $X_1$ and $X_2$, and sales denoted $Y$.
We assume that $X_2$ affects the effect of $X_1$ on $Y$, as well as having a direct effect on $Y$.
Note that $X_2$ affects the effect of $X_1$ on the outcome $Y$ and not the actual value of $X_1$.
I conceptualize this by the following graph:
Where as green-yellow denotes observed treatment variable, oval white denotes unobserved variable and blue rectangle denotes outcome.
I formalize this graph with the following equation: $\begin{equation} Y = b_0 + b_1 * X1 + b_2 * X2 + b_3 * x1 * x2 + \epsilon \end{equation}$
I am facing challenges in understanding whether there should be a direct arrow between $X2$ and $X1$, and arrows directly to sales from the input variables $X1$ and $X2$ instead of having the unobserved effect nodes. Please note that $X2$ does not cause $X1$, but it does influence the effect that $X1$ has on the outcome.
As there are no edges pointing into $X2$ and $X1$, I believe the backdoor criterion is satisfied. However, the equation troubles me since I would propose the same equation given the following scenario: an edge $X1 \rightarrow X2\text{effect}$ and no edge between $X2 \rightarrow X1\text{effect}$.
Question: is this graphical representation correct given the problem context and secondly, can the estimates be concluded causal by the proposed equation?