My question pertains to the following empirical situation.
You have a bivariate model (e.g. regression), and you find no effect of $X$ on $Y$.
Then you add a covariate in your model, $Z$, and now you find an effect of $X$ on $Y$. In other words, conditional on $Z$, an effect appears between $X$ and $Y$.
I sometimes see this empirical example in research, but it does not make sense to me.
According to Pearl, two variables show an association in three scenarios
- One causes the other
- They have a common cause (i.e. confounding bias)
- You (mistakenly) condition on common effects (collider bias)
Therefore, I do not see how it is possible that an "effect" is "revealed" by introducing predictors to "account for selection", other than via the collider bias.
If there is no bivariate association, how can there be "selection" to account for?
The only exemption I can think of is that $Z$ is a predictor of $Y$ but not $X$, and that $X$ is measured with a lot of noise, thereby by controlling for $Z$, we reduce the variation in $Y$, and make the estimate of $X$ more precise, potentially "revealing" an effect.
What do you think? Am I missing something?