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Please take a look first at this link: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ljung%E2%80%93Box_test#Formal_definition

It is written, $\chi_{1-\alpha,h}^2$ is the $\alpha$-quantile of the chi-squared distribution with $h$ degrees of freedom.

Does $\chi_{1-\alpha,h}^2$ mean:

  1. The area below the graph of $\chi^2(h)$ from $\chi_{1-\alpha,h}^2$ to $\infty$ is $\alpha$, or
  2. The area below the graph of $\chi^2(h)$ from $\chi_{1-\alpha,h}^2$ to $\infty$ is $1-\alpha$?
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1 Answer 1

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I'm not surprised this is confusing.

Usually the subscript "$1-\alpha$" indicates the chi-square value is at the $1-\alpha$ quantile of the distribution.

So that would suggest it has an area $1-\alpha$ to its left and $\alpha$ to its right.

That is to say, your option 1.

But on the other hand "$\alpha$-quantile" would more usually suggest the lower tail, your option 2.


So which is it:

Well, the statistic should reject when correlations are large, and the formula will produce large values of the test statistic when correlations are large.

So when the population correlations are zero, the upper tail of the null distribution, of area $\alpha$ forms the rejection region, so you need $\alpha$ in the upper tail.

Which is your option 1.

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  • $\begingroup$ What should be the case for Ljung-Box test? $\endgroup$
    – hans-t
    Commented Apr 30, 2014 at 8:44
  • $\begingroup$ Give me a moment; I was just reading the original papers to check I hadn't missed anything. .... and now finished $\endgroup$
    – Glen_b
    Commented Apr 30, 2014 at 8:53
  • $\begingroup$ Is "On a Measure of a Lack of Fit in Time Series Models" the title of the original paper? $\endgroup$
    – hans-t
    Commented Apr 30, 2014 at 10:39
  • $\begingroup$ Well, it's where the name Box-Ljung comes from, but it's really just adjusting the Box-Pierce (1970) statistic (for which see the references in the Wikipedia link in your question); you might also call that the "original" paper. $\endgroup$
    – Glen_b
    Commented Apr 30, 2014 at 11:21

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