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I have a logistic regression predicting probability of a 'yes' response given 'condition' (A,B,C,D; dummy coded, with 'A' as the reference level). This will produce estimates for the following:

Response ~ Condition

  • Intercept
  • Condition_B
  • Condition_C
  • Condition_D

I believe that Condition_B, Condition_C, Condition_D are the comparisons of these conditions against Condition_A. I believe that Condition_A is the intercept.

However, how do I interpret the effects when a continuous predictor (IQ) is added to the model?

Response ~ Condition+IQ

  • Intercept
  • Condition_B
  • Condition_C
  • Condition_D
  • IQ

Are the condition effects (including the intercept) interpreted as the effect when IQ=0? What is 'IQ' here?

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2 Answers 2

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Interpreting the Coefficients

This will depend on if the covariate is entered as a main effect or an interaction.

If you simply enter a categorical predictor and continuous predictor as main effects, your regression coefficients include a conditional mean intercept which represents the reference group, a dummy-coded slope term which is simply an increase/decrease in this conditional mean by each comparison group, and the continuous variable slope term which is a shared slope term which does not vary by group.

If you enter an interaction, the only difference now is that you get an adjusted slope term, which changes based on the categorical variable. Below I fit a model with only main effects and another model with the interaction. The entered variables include:

  • Miles per gallon (MPG)
  • Engine (VS): either v-shaped or straight
  • Horsepower (HP)

I use a two-level categorical variable here for simplicity. The model is fit with the mtcars data in R. The first model is the main effects only (VS and HP) and the second model is the interaction between VS and HP.

#### Main Effects Only ####
fit1 <- lm(mpg ~ factor(vs) + hp,
           mtcars)
summary(fit1)
bhat1 <- coef(fit1)
bhat1

#### Main and Interaction Effects ####
fit2 <- lm(mpg ~ factor(vs) * hp,
          mtcars)

summary(fit2)
bhat2 <- coef(fit2)
bhat2

Inspecting the coefficients of the model with just the categorical variable and continuous variable entered as main effects only (by printing bhat1):

(Intercept) factor(vs)1          hp 
26.96300111  2.57622314 -0.05453412

The intercept (conditional mean of the reference group) is around $26.96$. The conditional mean of the comparison group (VS = 1) is higher, so its intercept is just the addition of the intercept and the factor/categorical variable's coefficient to get the adjusted intercept ($26.96 + 2.58 = 29.54$). The last coefficient is a shared slope term. When the second coefficient is set to zero, the regression line for the reference group is simply constructed as:

$$ y = (\beta_0 \times 26.96) + (\beta_2 \times -0.055) + \epsilon $$

And if we are constructing the line for the comparison group, it becomes:

$$ y = (\beta_0 \times 26.96) + (\beta_1 \times 2.58) + (\beta_2 \times -0.055) + \epsilon $$

Notice the first equation can be obtained simply by setting $\beta_1$ to zero, which is how we get our unconditional slope. Contrarily, inspecting the coefficients of the interaction model by printing bhat2, we get these additional terms:

   (Intercept)    factor(vs)1             hp factor(vs)1:hp 
   24.49636966    14.50417652    -0.04153284    -0.11656540 

The only difference this time is that the last coefficient shifts the slope for the comparison group (this is why it notes VS = 1 in the interaction term). For constructing a line for the first group, we would just get this single intercept and single slope:

$$ y = (\beta_0 \times 24.50) + (\beta_1 \times -0.04) + \epsilon $$

Or simply identified as:

$$ \text{intercept} = 24.50 \\ \text{slope} = -0.04 $$

For the comparison group, the regression line changes to this:

$$ y = (\beta_0 \times 24.50) + (\beta_1 \times 14.50) + (\beta_2 \times -0.04) + (\beta_3 \times -0.12) + \epsilon $$

Just like how categorical variable coefficients are simply additions to the intercept, the interaction term here is simply an addition to the slope, so it technically becomes two operations, one for the intercept and one for the slope:

$$ \text{intercept} = 24.50 + 14.50 = 39 \\ \text{slope} = -0.04 + -0.12 = -0.16 $$

Visualizing the Regression

Plots make this distinction more clear. The code for visualizing the regression in R is below:

#### Plot Main Effects Model ####
par(mfrow=c(1,2))
col <- ifelse(mtcars$vs == 0, "black","gray")

plot(mtcars$hp,
     mtcars$mpg,
     pch=23,
     bg=col,
     cex=2,
     main="HP x MPG by Type",
     xlab="HP",
     ylab="MPG")

abline(
  bhat1[1] + bhat1[2], # adjusted intercept
  bhat1[3], # unadjusted slope
  col="gray",
  lwd=3
)

abline(
  bhat1[1], # unadjusted intercept
  bhat1[3], # unadjusted slope
  col="black",
  lwd=3
)

#### Plot Interaction Model ####
plot(mtcars$hp,
     mtcars$mpg,
     pch=23,
     bg=col,
     cex=2,
     main="HP x MPG by Type",
     xlab="HP",
     ylab="MPG")

abline(
  bhat2[1] + bhat2[2], # adjusted intercept
  bhat2[3] + bhat2[4], # adjusted slope
  col="gray",
  lwd=3
)

abline(
  bhat2[1], # unadjusted intercept
  bhat2[3], # unadjusted slope
  col="black",
  lwd=3
)

Here we can see in the first model (left plot) we are simply assuming that the slope is the same between groups (hence the parallel lines), and so the only difference is the mean differences between groups (you can see the gray regression line is higher than the black one because this group has generally larger values). In the second model (right plot), we adjust each slope by group, and so the slope decreases dramatically in the gray points/line.

enter image description here

So to summarize:

  • For the main effects-only model, the continuous predictor coefficient is the general slope, and the categorical predictor coefficient is the adjusted conditional mean (intercept).
  • For the interaction model, the continuous predictor coefficient is the slope for the reference group, the categorical predictor coefficient is the adjusted conditional mean (intercept) of the comparison group, and the interaction coefficient is the adjusted value of the slope for the comparison group.
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Not necessarily at the average level of IQ (or an IQ = 0), just at a fixed level of IQ. With that model, you see the effect of the different condition categories on the response probability, for subjects with the same IQ.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thanks. So the condition effects are just estimated based on a fixed (but no particular) level of IQ? How is 'IQ' interpreted as a main effect here? $\endgroup$
    – SilvaC
    Commented Jan 10 at 11:45
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    $\begingroup$ The main effect of IQ is how much the response probability (or the log-odds of it, depending on what you want as outcome of course) increases or decreases, when the IQ increases with 1 unit. This is assumed to be the same for all condition categories. If you suspect that the effect of IQ might be different for different condition categories, you might incorporate an interaction effect of those two effects as well. Does that help? $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 10 at 11:52

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