One post says that we should check the distribution of p-value before apply FDR correction. If the p-value distribution doesn't behavior well(e.g. U shape, not uniformly distributed at the tail toward 1), there might be a problem of your data or your model assumption.
However, I'm confused by another post, saying that 'The FDR does not assume a uniform distribution of p-values'.
What's one should I follow? Can I use BH-FDR if the p-value is not uniformly distributed?
Thanks in advance!