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The following question speaks about binomial distribution with known probability $p$, but unknown number of trials $n$.

Binomial confidence interval over the number of trials

Trying to think of how a Bayesian interval would be constructed for such a case I passed first at the stage to thinking about the Jeffreys prior. However, for a discrete parameter space this is not defined because the derivative does not exist.

Are there approaches to find a prior according to the same ideas? Of course, the property of invariance of the distribution under coordinate transformations is obsolete since probability mass functions don't transform like probability density functions. Is that the only property/motivation for Jeffreys prior, or are there other properties that can be applied to probability mass functions as well?

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One approach can be to approximate binomial distribution with a normal distribution

$$X \sim \mathcal{N}(\mu=\theta,\sigma^2=q\theta)$$ where $q = (1-p)$ is fixed and $\theta = np$ is unknown and we search a Jeffreys prior for it.

The Jeffreys prior is proportional to the square root of the Fisher information matrix

$$\mathcal{I}(\theta) = E\left[\left(\frac{\partial}{\partial\theta} \log f(x;\theta)\right)^2\right] $$

and

$$\begin{array}{} \frac{\partial}{\partial\theta} \log f(x;\theta) &=& \frac{\partial}{\partial\theta} \left(-\log(2\pi q\theta)-\frac{(x-\theta)^2}{2q\theta} \right) \\ &=& - \frac{1}{\theta} + \frac{x^2/\theta^2-1}{2q} \end{array}$$

and using

$$E[x^2] = (\theta^2+q \theta)$$ $$E[x^4] = \theta^4 + 6 q\theta^3 + 3q^2 \theta^2$$

we get

$$\begin{array}{} E\left[\left(- \frac{1}{\theta} + \frac{x^2/\theta^2-1}{2q} \right)^2\right]& = &E\left[ \frac{1}{\theta^2} - \frac{x^2/\theta^3-1/\theta}{q} + \frac{x^4/\theta^4-2x^2/\theta^2 + 1}{4q^2} \right]\\ &=& \frac{1}{q \theta }+\frac{3}{4\theta^2} \end{array} $$

Then a prior could be

$$p(\theta) \propto \sqrt{\frac{1}{q \theta }+\frac{3}{4\theta^2} } $$

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  • $\begingroup$ I thought that these calculations were gonna give some insight, but I am not so sure what it means. For example with $q=1$ I would have expected to get a similar result as the Jeffreys prior for the Poisson distribution, but it isn't. $\endgroup$ Commented yesterday

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